How to express exp(x).*log(1+exp(y).*inv_pos(z))?

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After a quick read of the paper and a discussion with Michal Adamaszek, then we believe

  • It cannot be formulated so CVX will accept it.
  • It cannot be formulated as an exponential cone problem.

We do not have a proof of the two statements so we may be wrong. In fact we hope history will prove us wrong.

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